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Improper integral (1+arcsin(1/x))/(1+x√x) from 1 to ∞

This problem asks to investigate the convergence of an improper integral of the first kind with an infinite upper limit.

Problem

∫ 1 + ∞ 1 + arcsin ( 1 / x ) 1 + x x d x

Solution

Step 1

The integrand f(x) = (1+arcsin(1/x))/(1+x√x) is continuous on [1, +∞) since arcsin(1/x) is defined for x ≥ 1, and the denominator is positive. Hence, the integral is improper of the first kind. To investigate convergence, we apply the comparison test in limit form.

Why is the comparison test chosen?

The integrand is a complex combination of the arcsine and a root, whose antiderivative is not expressed in elementary functions. Direct evaluation of the integral is impossible. However, as x → +∞, the function behaves like a power function, which allows us to choose a simpler comparison function g(x) and apply the limit comparison test. This test works when lim f(x)/g(x) is finite and nonzero.

Step 2

Bound the numerator from above. Since arcsin(1/x) for x ≥ 1 takes values in [0, π/2], we have 1 + arcsin(1/x) ≤ 1 + π/2. Then:

| f ( x ) | = | 1 + arcsin ( 1 / x ) | 1 + x x ≤ 1 + π 2 1 + x x ≤ 1 + π 2 x x

Step 3

This shows that f(x) = O(1/x^(3/2)) as x → +∞. Take g(x) = 1/x^(3/2) as the comparison function.

g ( x ) = 1 x 3 / 2

Step 4

The integral of the comparison function:

Why does the integral of g(x) converge?

The integral ∫₁⁺∞ dx/xᵅ converges when α > 1 and diverges when α ≤ 1. This is the reference improper integral of the first kind. In our case α = 3/2 > 1, so the integral converges.

∫ 1 + ∞ d x x α

Here α = 3/2 > 1, so the integral converges.

Step 5

By the comparison test (in the upper bound form): if 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ C·g(x) for x ≥ a and the integral ∫ g(x) dx converges, then the integral ∫ f(x) dx also converges. In our case f(x) ≤ (1+π/2)·(1/x^(3/2)), and the integral of 1/x^(3/2) converges.

α = 3 2 > 1

Answer

Converges.